100% Success NDA Sample Question Paper 2026 | Ground Zero Defence Academy

Preparing for the NDA exam in 2026 is a significant step for aspiring defence officers, as it opens doors to prestigious careers in the Indian Army, Navy, and Air Force. The NDA exam tests not only knowledge but also discipline and perseverance. Sample papers like this NDA Sample Question Paper 2026 are essential tools for practice, helping candidates understand the exam’s structure and difficulty level. At Ground Zero Defence Academy, a trusted NDA preparation institute in Dehradun, we emphasize that while resources like this NDA Practice Paper 2026 can build a strong foundation, true success comes from consistent effort, proper guidance, and strategic preparation.

NDA Exam Pattern 2026 (Updated & Accurate)

The NDA Exam Pattern 2026 remains consistent with recent years, as per the latest UPSC guidelines. It consists of two written papers: Mathematics and General Ability Test (GAT), followed by the SSB Interview.

• Mathematics Paper Details: 120 questions, 300 marks, 2.5 hours duration. Covers topics like Algebra, Trigonometry, Geometry, Mensuration, Statistics, and Calculus at Class 12 level.
• GAT Paper Details: 150 questions, 600 marks, 2.5 hours duration. Divided into English (50 questions, 200 marks) and General Knowledge (100 questions, 400 marks), including Physics, Chemistry, General Science, History, Geography, and Current Affairs.
• Marks, Duration, Negative Marking: Total written exam marks are 900. Each paper lasts 2.5 hours. Negative marking is 1/3 of the allotted marks for incorrect answers (0.83 marks deducted in Mathematics, 1.33 in GAT). No penalty for unanswered questions.

This pattern ensures a balanced assessment of analytical and general awareness skills.

NDA Sample Question Paper 2026 – ACTUAL QUESTIONS

This NDA Question Paper with Answers is designed to match the actual exam difficulty. Questions are MCQ format with four options (A, B, C, D). Correct answers are provided, along with short explanations where needed for better understanding.

Section A: Mathematics (22 Questions)

1. Consider the determinant Δ = | a11 a12 a13 a21 a22 a23 a31 a32 a33 |. If a13 = yz, a23 = zx, a33 = xy and the minors of a13, a23, a33 are respectively (z − y), (z − x), (y − x) then what is the value of Δ?
(A) (z − y)(z − x)(y − x)
(B) (x − y)(y − z)(x − z)
(C) (x − y)(z − x)(y − z)(x + y + z)
(D) (xy + yz + zx)(x + y + z)
Correct Answer: (A)Explanation: Expand along column 3 and simplify to (z − y)(z − x)(y − x).

2. Consider the following statements in respect of the given equation: (x² + 2)² + 8x² = 6x(x² + 2).
All the roots of the equation are complex.
The sum of all the roots of the equation is 6.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2
Correct Answer: (B)Explanation: Roots include complex and real; sum is 6.

3. If P(n, r) = 2520 and C(n, r) = 21, then what is the value of C(n + 1, r + 1)?
(A) 7
(B) 14
(C) 28
(D) 56
Correct Answer: (C)Explanation: r=5, n=7, so C(8,6)=28.

4. The roots of the equation x³ – 3x² + 2x = 0 are:
(A) 0, 1, 2
(B) 1, 2, 3
(C) -1, 0, 1
(D) 0, -1, -2
Correct Answer: (A)

5. If A = {1, 2, 3}, B = {3, 4, 5}, then A ∪ B is:
(A) {1,2,3,4,5}
(B) {3}
(C) {1,2,4,5}
(D) {1,3,5}
Correct Answer: (A)

6. The number of subsets of a set with 4 elements is:
(A) 8
(B) 16
(C) 32
(D) 64
Correct Answer: (B)

Trigonometry (5 Questions)

1. If sin x + sin y = cos y – cos x, where 0 < y < x < π/2, then what is tan(x – y/2) equal to?
(A) 0
(B) 1/2
(C) 1
(D) 2
Correct Answer: (C)Explanation: Using sum-to-product identities, simplifies to 1.

2. If sin 18° = (sqrt(5) – 1)/4, then the value of cos 36° is:

(A) (sqrt(5) + 1)/4
(B) (sqrt(5) – 1)/4
(C) 1/2
(D) sqrt(5)/4 Correct Answer: (A)

3. A moving boat is observed from the top of a cliff of 150 m height. The angle of depression of the boat changes from 60° to 45° in 2 minutes, what is the speed of the boat in metres per hour?
(A) 4500/√3
(B) 4500(√3 – 1)/√3
(C) 4500√3
(D) 4500(√3 + 1)/√3
Correct Answer: (B)Explanation: Distance calculated as 50√3(√3 – 1), speed = 4500(√3 – 1)/√3 m/h.

4. The value of cos 15° is:
(A) (√6 + √2)/4
(B) (√6 – √2)/4
(C) (√3 + 1)/ (2√2)
(D) (√3 – 1)/ (2√2)
Correct Answer: (A)

5. If tan θ = 3/4, then sin θ is:
(A) 3/5
(B) 4/5
(C) 3/4
(D) 4/3
Correct Answer: (A)

Geometry (4 Questions)

1. Consider a regular polygon with 10 sides. What is the number of triangles that can be formed by joining the vertices which have no common side with any of the sides of the polygon?
(A) 25
(B) 50
(C) 75
(D) 100
Correct Answer: (B)Explanation: Formula n(n-4)(n-5)/6 = 50 for n=10.

2. What is the distance between the points which divide the line segment joining (4, 3) and (5, 7) internally and externally in ratio 2:3?
(A) √(12/17 × 5)
(B) √(13/17 × 5)
(C) √(17/5)
(D) √(6/17 × 5)
Correct Answer: (A)

3. The equation of a line parallel to y = 2x + 3 is:
(A) y = 2x + 5
(B) y = 3x + 3
(C) y = -2x + 3
(D) x = 2y + 3
Correct Answer: (A)

4. The area of a triangle with vertices (0,0), (4,0), (0,3) is:
(A) 6
(B) 12
(C) 4
(D) 8
Correct Answer: (A)

Mensuration (2 Questions)

1. The volume of a sphere with radius 3 cm is:
(A) 36π cm³
(B) 108π cm³
(C) 4π cm³
(D) 12π cm³
Correct Answer: (A)

2. The surface area of a cube with side 5 cm is:
(A) 150 cm²
(B) 125 cm²
(C) 100 cm²
(D) 200 cm²
Correct Answer: (A)

Statistics (2 Questions)

1. The mean of numbers 1 to 10 is:
(A) 5
(B) 5.5
(C) 6
(D) 4.5
Correct Answer: (B)

2. The mode of data 2,3,3,4,5 is:
(A) 3
(B) 4
(C) 2
(D) 5
Correct Answer: (A)

Calculus (3 Questions)

1. Let f(x) = {1 + x^{2k}, 0 < x < 2; kx, 2 ≤ x < 4}. If lim_{x→2} f(x) exists, then what is the value of k?
(A) -2
(B) -1
(C) 0
(D) 1
Correct Answer: (D)Explanation: Set left and right limits equal, solving to k=1.

2. What is ∫_1^3 |1 – x^4| dx equal to?
(A) -232/5
(B) -116/5
(C) 116/5
(D) 232/5
Correct Answer: (D)

3. The derivative of x² + 3x is:
(A) 2x + 3
(B) x + 3
(C) 2x
(D) 3
Correct Answer: (A)

Section B: GAT (28 Questions Total)
English (6 Questions)

1. Rearrange the parts: in terms of GDP and GNP, (P) / for gauging the success of a nation (Q) / which are the two major determinants (R) / economic progress is determined (S)
(A) SQRP
(B) RPQS
(C) SPRQ
(D) QRPS
Correct Answer: (C)Explanation: Forms “Economic progress is determined (S) in terms of GDP and GNP, (P) which are the two major determinants (R) for gauging the success of a nation (Q)”

2. His truancy is detrimental. (Synonym of truancy)
(A) loyalty
(B) integrity
(C) honesty
(D) absenteeism
Correct Answer: (D)

3. There was a time when West Germany was a distinct __.
(A) policy
(B) polity
(C) abstract
(D) hierarchy
Correct Answer: (B)

4. Dispose off (a) / the garbage (b) / from the shelves (c) / No error (d)
(A) a
(B) b
(C) c
(D) d
Correct Answer: (A)Explanation: Should be “Dispose of”.

5. Five years ago on this date, I am sitting in a small Japanese car, driving across Poland towards Berlin.
(A) was sitting
(B) sat
(C) have been sitting
(D) No improvement
Correct Answer: (A)

6. Choose the antonym of “benevolent”:
(A) Kind
(B) Malevolent
(C) Generous
(D) Charitable
Correct Answer: (B)

Physics (4 Questions)

Q1. A brass ball is tied to a thin wire and swung, so as to move uniformly in a horizontal circle. Which statement(s) is/are true?

1. Constant velocity
2. Constant speed
3. Constant acceleration
4. Constant magnitude of acceleration

(A) 1 and 3
(B) 2 and 4
(C) 2 and 3
(D) 1 and 4

Correct Answer: (B)

Q2. The absolute zero is about:
(A) 0°C
(B) -100°C
(C) -273°C
(D) 273°C

Correct Answer: (C)

Q3. The silvering in thermo flask is done to avoid heat transfer by:
(A) Conduction
(B) Convection
(C) Radiation
(D) Evaporation

Correct Answer: (C)

Q4. In SI unit, force ‘newton’ is:
(A) kg·m/s
(B) kg·m/s²
(C) kg/s
(D) m/s²

Correct Answer: (B)

Chemistry (4 Questions)

Q5. The symbol of the element ‘tungsten’ is:
(A) Tu
(B) Tg
(C) W
(D) Tn

Correct Answer: (C)

Q6. The alkali metal with the highest melting point is:
(A) Na
(B) K
(C) Li
(D) Rb

Correct Answer: (C)

Q7. In the reaction CH₄(g) + H₂O(g) → CO(g) + 3H₂(g), the mixture of CO and H₂ is:
(A) Natural gas
(B) Water gas
(C) Producer gas
(D) Laughing gas

Correct Answer: (B)

Q8. Addition of gypsum to cement:
(A) Increases strength
(B) Regulates setting time
(C) Decreases durability
(D) Adds color

Correct Answer: (B)

General Science (4 Questions)

Q9. Muscle fatigue is due to accumulation of:
(A) Glucose
(B) Lactic acid
(C) Oxygen
(D) Carbon dioxide

Correct Answer: (B)

Q10. Which is not a greenhouse gas?
(A) CO₂
(B) CH₄
(C) N₂
(D) O₃

Correct Answer: (C)

Q11. Living things are grouped into plant/animal kingdoms. Which is not correct for animal kingdom?
(A) Heterotrophic
(B) Multicellular
(C) Photosynthetic
(D) Motile

Correct Answer: (C)

Q12. The useful part in paper manufacturing is:
(A) Roots
(B) Leaves
(C) Wood pulp
(D) Flowers

Correct Answer: (C)

History (4 Questions)

Q13. Who is the author of “The Indian Struggle, 1920–1934”?
(A) Maulana Abul Kalam
(B) Jayprakash Narayan
(C) Subhash Chandra Bose
(D) Manabendra Nath Roy

Correct Answer: (C)

Q14. Which about the Swadeshi Campaign in 1896 is not correct?
(A) Centre was Maharashtra
(B) Main participants students
(C) Opposed tariff on imports
(D) Burnt foreign clothes

Correct Answer: (C)

Q15. Which association was founded in London by Dadabhai Naoroji in 1866?
(A) Bengal British India Society
(B) East India Association
(C) British Indian Association
(D) Madras Native Association

Correct Answer: (B)

Q16. Which about the Ilbert Bill is correct?
(A) Indian magistrates try Europeans
(B) Indians file cases against Europeans
(C) Indian ICS officers try Europeans
(D) Agitation led by Ilbert

Correct Answer: (A)

Geography (4 Questions)

Q17. Which pair of rivers and tributaries is not correctly matched?
(A) Godavari: Indravati
(B) Ganga: Penganga
(C) Krishna: Bhima
(D) Luni: Sukri

Correct Answer: (B)

Q18. Where is Mekong Delta located?
(A) Thailand
(B) Cambodia
(C) Myanmar
(D) Vietnam

Correct Answer: (D)

Q19. Which is not an igneous rock?
(A) Gabbro
(B) Granite
(C) Dolomite
(D) Basalt

Correct Answer: (C)

Q20. Which state has the largest forest cover?
(A) Maharashtra
(B) Chhattisgarh
(C) Madhya Pradesh
(D) Andhra Pradesh

Correct Answer: (C)

Current Affairs (Relevant for NDA 2026) – (2 Questions)

Q21. Russia plans to build a nuclear power plant on the Moon by which year?
(A) 2030
(B) 2026
(C) 2035
(D) 2047

Correct Answer: (C)

Q22. Who has been elected Chair of the BWF Athletes Commission for 2026–2029?
(A) PV Sindhu
(B) Sania Mirza
(C) Saina Nehwal
(D) Nikhat Zareen

Correct Answer: (A)

How to Use This NDA Sample Paper for Maximum Selection Chances

To maximize your chances in NDA Preparation 2026, treat this NDA Sample Paper with Solutions as a timed mock test.

Time Management: Allocate 2.5 hours per section. Prioritize easier questions to secure marks quickly.
Accuracy Focus: Aim for 70–80% accuracy. Review explanations to learn from mistakes.
Negative Marking Strategy: Avoid guessing; attempt only confident answers to minimize deductions.

Regular practice with this NDA Exam Question Paper 2026 builds confidence, but remember, selection depends on holistic preparation including physical fitness and SSB skills.

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NDA Exam Pattern & Difficulty Level Overview

This NDA Sample Question Paper 2026 provides a realistic practice experience. While “100% Success” is motivational, achieving it requires dedication. Ground Zero Defence Academy supports your journey with proven strategies.